1. R. Karthikeyan v. Union of India, DGP & State of Tamil Nadu (W.P. No. 30622 of 2026
Facts:- The petitioner moved the High Court challenging arbitrary state police actions and surveillance measures. The plea highlighted a lack of procedural fairness and sought judicial intervention to restrain unauthorized interference by law enforcement officials.
Issue:-The main legal issue was whether the police action violated fundamental rights under Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution, and whether mandatory directives should be issued to ensure state law enforcement complies strictly with established statutory protocols and procedural safeguards.
Decision:-The Court disposed of the writ petition by ordering the State and the Director General of Police to strictly enforce constitutional limits and statutory guidelines. It held that administrative power must be exercised reasonably, directing the authority to prevent procedural arbitrary conduct while upholding personal liberty.
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2. I.S. Inbadurai v. A.T. Durai Kumar, IPS (Cont.P. No. 872 of 2026)
Facts:- petitioner I.S. Inbadurai (Rajya Sabha MP) filed a contempt petition before the Madras High Court alleging wilful disobedience of its prior order dated February 20, 2026. The Court had directed the Directorate of Vigilance and Anti-Corruption (DVAC) to register an FIR based on materials received from the Enforcement Directorate regarding alleged corruption in municipal recruitment appointments. The petitioner alleged that despite formal representations and serving legal notices, the DVAC failed to register the case, causing an unreasonable delay. Former Minister K.N. Nehru simultaneously sought a review of the underlying direction.
Issue:-The core legal question was whether the respondent authority (DVAC In-Charge Director) committed wilful contempt under Section 11 of the Contempt of Courts Act by delaying the registration of an FIR as directed by the High Court, and whether the contempt proceedings should subsist once the State initiates investigation compliance.
Decision:- A Division Bench of the Madras High Court closed the contempt petition. The Court recorded the explicit assurance given by the Advocate General and State Public Prosecutor that the DVAC had officially registered the FIR pursuant to the High Court’s directions and that the investigation would proceed without further delay. Satisfied that the grievance behind the petition stood addressed through actual compliance, the Court deemed it unnecessary to pass punitive contempt orders against the official.
3. M. v. R. (2026 (Mad) 214)
Facts:- the husband, a Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) constable, filed a divorce petition under Section 13(1)(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, alleging that his wife engaged in an adulterous relationship with a married man in their village while he was posted away from home. The Family Court dismissed the husband’s petition on the ground that direct evidence proving actual sexual intercourse was not produced. Aggrieved by the Family Court’s refusal to grant a decree of dissolution of marriage, the husband filed a Civil Miscellaneous Appeal before the Madras High Court.
Issue:- The principal legal issue was whether direct proof of sexual intercourse is mandatory to establish adultery under matrimonial law, or whether an adulterous relationship can be legally inferred based on cumulative circumstantial evidence, social context, and proof of close proximity between the parties.
Decision:- A Division Bench of the Madras High Court set aside the Family Court’s judgment and granted a decree of divorce to the husband. The Court held that since adultery is inherently committed in secrecy, expecting eyewitness accounts or direct evidence of sexual intercourse is unrealistic. The High Court ruled that a court can legitimately infer adultery from the surrounding circumstances, conduct of the parties, and established evidence showing close proximity and illicit intimacy.
4. V. Anand Kumar vs The State Of Tamil Nadu on 13 October, 2026
Facts:– the petitioner owned private patta land measuring around four cents in Ooty, designated as a primary residential zone under the notified Master Plan. In August 2025, he applied for a building plan approval to construct a residential structure. Municipal authorities halted the application process, claiming that Rule 7(2) of the Tamil Nadu District Municipalities (Hill Stations) Building Rules, 1993, imposes a restriction or prohibition on construction on lands located within 150 meters of a reserve forest boundary. The petitioner challenged this administrative inaction, asserting that Rule 7(2) applies only to government land assignments, not to private patta properties.
Issue:- The legal issue was whether Rule 7(2) of the 1993 Rules creates a blanket “No Construction Zone” over private patta lands situated within 150 meters of a forest buffer, or whether municipal authorities are legally obligated to process building plan applications on private residential lands in accordance with statutory building regulations and Master Plan provisions.
Decision:- The Madras High Court held that a forest buffer zone cannot be converted into an automatic, blanket “No Construction Zone” over private lands. Rule 7(2) restricts government land assignments rather than creating an absolute prohibition on private property development. The Court clarified that while residential zoning does not confer an absolute right to build without obtaining required statutory clearances, authorities cannot refuse to process an application solely relying on Rule 7(2). Consequently, the Court directed the authorities to process the petitioner’s building application in alignment with the notified Master Plan and building rules.
5. Chandra Prakash & Anr. v. The State Rep. by the Inspector of Police on October 23, 2026 (Crl.O.P. No. 30977 of 2026)
Facts:- the petitioners were arrested and remanded to judicial custody on September 29, 2026. The prosecution alleged that on September 27, 2026, the petitioners unlawfully assembled, armed with iron rods, intercepted the de-facto complainant’s lorry, used obscene language, and physically assaulted him, causing bodily injuries. A case was registered under Sections 126(2), 296(b), 118(1), 311, 125, and 351(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023. The petitioners filed a criminal original petition before the Madras High Court seeking regular bail.
Issue:- The central legal question was whether the petitioners were entitled to be released on regular bail under Section 483 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, considering the gravity of the offenses, weapons used, duration of judicial custody, and the discharge of the victim from the hospital.
Decision:- The Madras High Court (Single Bench of Justice N. Ramesh) granted bail to the petitioners. Taking into account the length of judicial custody, the nature of allegations, and the fact that the injured complainant was discharged from the hospital, the Court ordered their release on executing a bond of ₹25,000 each with two sureties. The release was made subject to strict conditions, including reporting daily to the respondent police at 10:30 AM, refraining from tampering with evidence or witnesses, and non-abscondance during investigation or trial.
6. GEF foods india private limited v. Annapurna Swadisht limited,C.S.( Comm.Div.) No.223 of 2026
Facts:-the plaintiff, possessing a brand heritage tracing back to 1980 under the registered trademark “SREE ANNAPOORNA” for spices, masalas, and packaged food mixes in Class 30, instituted a commercial suit. The plaintiff sought an injunction restraining the defendant from using phonetically and visually deceptive marks like “ANNAPURNA SNACKS” and “ANNAPURNA SWADISHT” for allied food items like fryums, papads, and packaged snacks. The defendant resisted the suit and filed applications to vacate an earlier ad-interim injunction, arguing that “Annapurna” carries religious significance, and that registration in Class 30 does not grant a total monopoly over non-competing snack items.
Issue:- The primary legal issue was whether the defendant’s adoption of the mark “ANNAPURNA” for snacks and fryums constituted trade mark infringement under Section 29 of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, and passing off against the plaintiff’s established registered mark “ANNAPOORNA” used for spices and food products within the same class of allied and cognate goods.
Decision:- The Commercial Division of the Madras High Court (Justice A.D. Maria Clete) ruled in favour of the plaintiff, confirming the interim protection and dismissing the defendant’s vacation applications. The Court held that “ANNAPOORNA” and “ANNAPURNA” are phonetically identical and cover allied and cognate food goods sold through identical trade channels to average consumers. Establishing a clear prima facia case of infringement and balance of convenience, the Court made the interim injunction absolute till the final disposal of the suit.
7. Agri S.S Krishnamurthy v.The Speaker, Tamil Nadu legislative Assembly and others,2026:MHC: 4196
Facts:-the petitioner (AIADMK official whip) filed a batch of writ petitions challenging the Speaker’s rapid acceptance and notification of resignations tendered by several rebel MLAs. The petitioner argued that the Speaker accepted the resignations in a hasty manner under Article 190(3)(b) of the Constitution while anti-defection disqualification petitions filed against those MLAs under the Tenth Schedule were actively pending. The petitioner alleged that the prompt acceptance bypassed mandatory inquiry, constituted constitutional fraud, and aimed to render the pending disqualification proceedings infructuous.
Issue:- The main legal issues were whether the Speaker is legally obligated to conduct a detailed inquiry into political motives before accepting an MLA’s resignation under Article 190(3)(b), and whether pending Tenth Schedule disqualification proceedings mandate the deferral or invalidation of the Speaker’s acceptance of a voluntary resignation.
Decision:- A Division Bench of the Madras High Court (headed by Chief Justice Sushrut Arvind Dharmadhikari) dismissed the challenge to the resignation acceptances, upholding the Speaker’s decisions. The Court held that verification under Article 190(3)(b) is limited to checking if a resignation is genuine and voluntary, which does not require an inquiry into underlying political motives. The Court ruled that constitutional resignation powers and Tenth Schedule disqualification proceedings operate independently, meaning a pending disqualification petition does not bar the Speaker from accepting a valid resignation. However, the Court directed the Speaker to adjudicate the pending Tenth Schedule disqualification petitions within a specified time-frame.
8. A.Chidambaram v. State represented by the Superintendent police,2026:MHC: 4155
Facts:-the petitioner filed a private complaint before the Magistrate under Section 175(3) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023. The complaint alleged cognizable penal offences, including forgery, fabrication of documents, and criminal conspiracy regarding land purchased in 2005. In November 2025, the Judicial Magistrate dismissed the petition at the threshold without ordering an investigation, ruling that the dispute was purely “civil in nature”. The petitioner challenged this dismissal before the Madras High Court.
Issue:- The legal issue was whether a Magistrate can refuse to direct the registration of an FIR and an investigation under Section 175(3) of the BNSS by conducting a threshold “mini-trial” to evaluate rival titles and defence contentions, dismissing a complaint solely because a related civil property dispute exists.
Decision:- The Madras High Court (Single Bench of Justice Shamim Ahmed) set aside the Magistrate’s order, holding that the Magistrate exceeded jurisdiction by conducting a premature mini-trial. The Court clarified that the existence of a civil dispute does not bar criminal proceedings if the complaint prima facie discloses cognizable penal offences. Consequently, the High Court remanded the matter with a direction to the Magistrate to order the District Crime Branch to register an FIR, conduct a proper investigation, and submit a report within eight weeks.
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