1. Alibi is governed by-

  1. Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act
  2. Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act
  3. Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act
  4. Section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act

Correct answer: c.

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

Also Read – Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) MCQ Set 4 : Important Questions with Answers

2. Communications “without prejudice” are protected by-

  1. Section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act
  2. Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Act
  3. Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act
  4. Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act

Correct answer – c

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

3. Under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act-

  1. The whole statement is admissible
  2. Only the portion of the statement which leads to the discovery is admissible
  3. Both the whole statement and the discovery portion are admissible
  4. None of the above are admissible

Correct answer: b

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

4. The opinion of an Expert is relevant under-

  1. Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act
  2. Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
  3. Section 47 of the Indian Evidence Act
  4. Section 48 of the Indian Evidence Act

Correct answer: a

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

Also Read – BNSS MCQ Practice Set 3: Top 10 Important Questions with Answers for Judiciary, APO & Law Exams

5. Power of the Court to suo motu examine any person at any stage is under-

  1. Section 163 of the Indian Evidence Act
  2. Section 164 of the Indian Evidence Act
  3. Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act
  4. Section 167 of the Indian Evidence Act

Correct answer: c

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

6. In a non-commercial suit when issues both of fact and law arise and the Court is of the opinion that the suit may be disposed of on an issue of law only, the Court can-

  1. Frame issues of law and facts and adjudicate the issues of law as preliminary issues
  2. Frame issues both of fact and law and decide all issues together
  3. Frame issues only on the issues of law and postpone the settlement of other issues
  4. Both (1) and (3)

Correct answer: d

Source: Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

7. For the purpose of amendment of pleadings under Order VI Rule 17 CPC, the commencement of trial takes place-

  1. When the issues are framed
  2. When the affidavits in evidence are filed
  3. When the affidavits in evidence are tendered by the witness
  4. Once cross-examination begins

Correct answer: d

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2019

8. A compromise decree-

  1. Operates as res judicata between parties to the compromise
  2. Does not operate as res judicata
  3. (1) or (2) depending upon facts and circumstances of each case 
  4. (1) or (2) depending on the discretion of the court

Correct answer: b

Source : Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination

9. The act of submission of a tender is-

  1. An act of making an offer pursuant to the notice inviting tender
  2. An act of acceptance of the offer contained in the notice inviting tender
  3. An act of entering into the contract
  4. An act of making a counter proposal in pursuance to the notice inviting tender

Correct answer: a

Source : Delhi Judicial Service Prelims Paper 2019

10. When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation-

  1. The agreement is not a contract
  2. The agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused
  3. The agreement is a contract voidable at the option of either party
  4. The agreement is a binding contract between the parties

Correct answer: b. The agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused

Source : Delhi Judicial Service Prelims Paper 2019

11. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956 who among the following cannot be adopted-

  1. A Hindu
  2. Already adopted child
  3. A minor
  4. An unmarried child

Correct answer: b

Source examination: Rajasthan Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2018; Question 2. Source: view source

12. When a marriage has been dissolved by a decree of divorce under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 and there is a right of appeal, the divorced persons may marry again:

  1. After expiry of 1 month from the decree of divorce
  2. Immediately after passing of the decree of divorce
  3. After expiry of 2 months from the decree of divorce
  4. After expiry of the time for appealing, without any appeal having been presented

Correct answer: d

Source : Rajasthan Judicial Service (Pre.) Examination 2018

13. Consider the various punishments mentioned in Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and arrange them in correct order: (i) Forfeiture of property (ii) Community service (iii) Imprisonment (iv) Fine

  1. iii, i, iv, ii
  2. ii, iv, iii, i
  3. iii, i, ii, iv
  4. i, ii, iii, iv

Correct answer: c

Source examination: UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

14. Which one of the following is not included in the expression “Court” under the BSA, 2023?

  1. All persons legally authorised to take evidence
  2. All Judges
  3. All Magistrates
  4. Arbitrator

Correct answer: d

Source: UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

15. The idea of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Seventh Schedule

Correct answer: b

Source examination: UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

16. “Voyeurism” is defined under which Section of the BNS?

  1. Section 77
  2. Section 75
  3. Section 133
  4. Section 76

Correct answer: a

Source examination: UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

17. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution by:

  1. 46th Amendment
  2. 42nd Amendment
  3. 41st Amendment
  4. 44th Amendment

Correct answer: b

Source : UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

18. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned as a writ in the Constitution of India?

  1. Mandamus
  2. Injunction
  3. Prohibition
  4. Quo-warranto

Correct answer: b

Source examination: UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

19. “In furtherance of common intention” used in Section 3(5) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, requires:

  1. No pre-arranged plan is necessary
  2. All accused must be present at one place
  3. Common object
  4. Pre-arranged plan

Correct answer: d

Source examination: UP APO Prelims Paper 2025

20. Under the BNSS, 2023, who can file an application for Plea Bargaining?

  1. The investigating officer
  2. The accused of the offence
  3. The public prosecutor
  4. The victim of the offence

Correct answer: b

Source : UP APO Prelims Paper 2025