PART A — PREAMBLE (Q. 1 – 17)
Q1. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a:
(A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(B) Sovereign, Democratic, Federal, Secular Republic
(C) Federal, Socialist, Democratic, Secular State
(D) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Welfare State
✓ Answer: (A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic | Source: UP PCS (J) Prelims 2015
Q2. The word ‘Socialist’ was inserted into the Preamble of the Constitution by which amendment?
(A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976
(B) 44th Constitutional Amendment, 1978
(C) 25th Constitutional Amendment, 1971
(D) 52nd Constitutional Amendment, 1985
✓ Answer: (A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 | Source: MPCJ Prelims 2019
Q3. The Preamble to the Constitution of India was amended by which of the following?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(C) Both the 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts
(D) It has never been amended
✓ Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 | Source: Rajasthan Judiciary Prelims 2016
Q4. In the Berubari Union Case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble of the Constitution is:
(A) Not a part of the Constitution
(B) A part of the Constitution with binding force
(C) A key to open the minds of the framers
(D) Justiciable in a court of law
✓ Answer: (A) Not a part of the Constitution | Source: UPPCS (J) 2018 / Bihar APO 2017
Q5. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court held the Preamble to be:
(A) Not a part of the Constitution
(B) A part of the Constitution but not enforceable
(C) A part of the Constitution and subject to the amending power
(D) A mere declaration with no legal value
✓ Answer: (C) A part of the Constitution and subject to the amending power | Source: Delhi Judiciary Prelims 2019
Q6. Which of the following correctly describes the objectives enshrined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
(B) Justice, Equality, Freedom, Dignity
(C) Equality, Dignity, Liberty, Development
(D) Fraternity, Justice, Progress, Security
✓ Answer: (A) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity | Source: MP APO 2018
Also Read – Free Constitution MCQ Set 6
Q7. The expression ‘We, the People of India’ in the Preamble signifies that the Constitution derives its authority from:
(A) The Parliament of India
(B) The President of India
(C) The people of India
(D) The Constituent Assembly
✓ Answer: (C) The people of India | Source: Uttarakhand PCS (J) 2017
Q8. The concept of ‘Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship’ in the Preamble corresponds primarily to which Fundamental Rights?
(A) Articles 19 and 25
(B) Articles 14 and 15
(C) Articles 21 and 22
(D) Articles 29 and 30
✓ Answer: (A) Articles 19 and 25 | Source: Rajasthan APO 2016 (Adapted)
Q9. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment. Which of the following best describes its constitutional meaning as interpreted by the Supreme Court?
(A) The State has no religion of its own and treats all religions equally
(B) The State promotes one common religion for all citizens
(C) Religious practice is prohibited in public spaces
(D) The State may prefer one religion over others in matters of public welfare
✓ Answer: (A) The State has no religion of its own and treats all religions equally | Source: UP Judicial Service Prelims 2020
Q10. The phrase ‘Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the Nation’ appears in the:
(A) Preamble
(B) Article 51A
(C) Article 14
(D) Directive Principles of State Policy
✓ Answer: (A) Preamble | Source: MPCJ 2014
Q11. Which one of the following is NOT mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Justice
(B) Liberty
(C) Equality
(D) Federal
✓ Answer: (D) Federal | Source: CG PCS (J) 2017
Q12. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was adopted on:
(A) 26 November 1949
(B) 26 January 1950
(C) 15 August 1947
(D) 26 November 1950
✓ Answer: (A) 26 November 1949 | Source: Bihar APO 2015
Q13. The word ‘Integrity’ was added to the Preamble by which amendment?
(A) 42nd Amendment, 1976
(B) 44th Amendment, 1978
(C) It was part of the original Preamble
(D) 7th Amendment, 1956
✓ Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment, 1976 | Source: Jharkhand PCS (J) 2016
Q14. In LIC of India v. Consumer Education and Research Centre (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble’s concept of ‘social and economic justice’ is best secured through:
(A) Directive Principles read with Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Rights alone
(C) Directive Principles alone
(D) Judicial legislation
✓ Answer: (A) Directive Principles read with Fundamental Rights | Source: Delhi APO 2019 (Adapted)
Q15. Which of the three types of justice mentioned in the Preamble corresponds to the concept of welfare state?
(A) Economic justice
(B) Social justice
(C) Political justice
(D) Both (A) and (B)
✓ Answer: (D) Both (A) and (B) | Source: UPPCS (J) 2016
Q16. The Preamble describes India as a ‘Republic’. This means:
(A) The head of State is an elected person, not a hereditary monarch
(B) India is governed by a Prime Minister
(C) India follows a federal system of government
(D) India is free from colonial rule
✓ Answer: (A) The head of State is an elected person, not a hereditary monarch | Source: Rajasthan Judiciary Prelims 2019
Also Read – Bihar Judiciary Prelims 2026 MCQ Set 1
Q17. Which part of the Indian Constitution corresponds to the ideal of ‘Equality of status and of opportunity’ mentioned in the Preamble?
(A) Part III — Fundamental Rights
(B) Part IV — Directive Principles
(C) Part IVA — Fundamental Duties
(D) Part II — Citizenship
✓ Answer: (A) Part III — Fundamental Rights | Source: MP PCS (J) 2015
PART B — CITIZENSHIP (Q. 18 – 34)
Q18. Citizenship in India is dealt with under which Part of the Constitution?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
✓ Answer: (B) Part II | Source: UPPCS (J) Prelims 2017
Q19. The Parliament of India is empowered to make laws on citizenship under which article of the Constitution?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 9
(C) Article 11
(D) Article 10
✓ Answer: (C) Article 11 | Source: Bihar Judiciary Prelims 2016
Q20. A person who migrated from Pakistan to India before 19 July 1948 and has been residing in India since then acquires citizenship under which Article?
(A) Article 5
(B) Article 6(a)
(C) Article 6(b)
(D) Article 7
✓ Answer: (B) Article 6(a) | Source: Rajasthan APO 2018
Q21. Article 7 of the Constitution deals with citizenship of persons who:
(A) Migrated from Pakistan to India
(B) Migrated from India to Pakistan after 1st March 1947 but returned later
(C) Were born in India before commencement of Constitution
(D) Voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign state
✓ Answer: (B) Migrated from India to Pakistan after 1st March 1947 but returned later | Source: MPCJ Prelims 2015
Q22. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship by birth is governed by which section?
(A) Section 3
(B) Section 4
(C) Section 5
(D) Section 6
✓ Answer: (A) Section 3 | Source: UP APO 2017
Q23. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 grants expedited citizenship to persecuted minorities from which three countries?
(A) Pakistan, Afghanistan, Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal
(C) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar
(D) Pakistan, China, Afghanistan
✓ Answer: (A) Pakistan, Afghanistan, Bangladesh | Source: Delhi Judiciary Prelims 2020
Q24. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following is a ground for termination of Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
(A) Renunciation
(B) Termination
(C) Deprivation
(D) All of the above
✓ Answer: (D) All of the above | Source: CG PCS (J) 2016
Q25. Article 8 of the Constitution deals with rights of citizenship of persons of Indian origin residing:
(A) Outside India
(B) In Jammu and Kashmir
(C) In Indian territories acquired after 1950
(D) In Scheduled Areas
✓ Answer: (A) Outside India | Source: Jharkhand Judiciary Prelims 2017
Q26. India follows which type of citizenship system?
(A) Single citizenship
(B) Double citizenship
(C) Federal citizenship
(D) Both single and double citizenship
✓ Answer: (A) Single citizenship | Source: UPPCS (J) 2019
Q27. Under Article 9 of the Constitution, a person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign state:
(A) Shall not be a citizen of India
(B) May retain Indian citizenship with government permission
(C) Shall be a citizen of India only if born in India
(D) Shall lose only the right to vote
✓ Answer: (A) Shall not be a citizen of India | Source: Bihar APO 2018
Also Read – Free Constitution MCQ Set 5
Q28. Citizenship by registration under the Citizenship Act, 1955 is granted under:
(A) Section 5
(B) Section 6
(C) Section 7
(D) Section 4
✓ Answer: (A) Section 5 | Source: Rajasthan PCS (J) 2016
Q29. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship by naturalisation requires a minimum period of residence in India of:
(A) 11 years out of the last 14 years
(B) 5 years out of the last 10 years
(C) 7 years out of the last 12 years
(D) 10 years continuous residence
✓ Answer: (A) 11 years out of the last 14 years | Source: MP APO 2017
Q30. The concept of ‘Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)’ was introduced by which amendment to the Citizenship Act?
(A) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005
(B) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003
(C) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019
(D) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986
✓ Answer: (A) Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005 | Source: Delhi APO 2018
Q31. A person born in India on or after 26 January 1950 but before 1 July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth if:
(A) Either of his parents was a citizen of India at the time of his birth
(B) Both of his parents were citizens of India at the time of his birth
(C) He has resided in India for at least 10 years
(D) He has not acquired citizenship of any other country
✓ Answer: (A) Either of his parents was a citizen of India at the time of his birth | Source: UPPCS (J) 2020
Q32. Under which Article of the Constitution are the provisions of Articles 5 to 8 subject to any law that Parliament may make?
(A) Article 10
(B) Article 11
(C) Article 12
(D) Article 9
✓ Answer: (B) Article 11 | Source: Bihar Judiciary Prelims 2019
Q33. A minor child born outside India to Indian citizen parents acquires Indian citizenship by which mode under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
(A) Descent
(B) Birth
(C) Registration
(D) Naturalisation
✓ Answer: (A) Descent | Source: Rajasthan APO 2019
Q34. Which of the following correctly identifies the constitutional provision for citizenship at commencement?
(A) Article 5 — persons domiciled and born in India, or born to parents who were born in India, or ordinarily resident for 5 years
(B) Article 6 — persons who migrated from Pakistan with a permit
(C) Article 7 — persons who chose to remain in India after migration to Pakistan
(D) Article 8 — persons of Indian origin residing in India
✓ Answer: (A) Article 5 — persons domiciled and born in India, or born to parents who were born in India, or ordinarily resident for 5 years | Source: CG PCS (J) 2019
Also Read – 10 Free Quiz on Constitution of India
PART C — FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES (Q. 35 – 50)
Q35. Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution on the recommendation of which committee?
(A) Swaran Singh Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Ashok Mehta Committee
(D) L.M. Singhvi Committee
✓ Answer: (A) Swaran Singh Committee | Source: Bihar Judiciary Prelims 2017
Q36. Fundamental Duties are contained in which Part of the Constitution?
(A) Part IVA
(B) Part III
(C) Part IV
(D) Part V
✓ Answer: (A) Part IVA | Source: UPPCS (J) 2016
Q37. Fundamental Duties were inserted into the Constitution by which Amendment?
(A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(B) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(C) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
(D) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
✓ Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 | Source: Rajasthan Judiciary Prelims 2018
Q38. Under which Article of the Constitution are Fundamental Duties listed?
(A) Article 51A
(B) Article 51
(C) Article 50
(D) Article 49
✓ Answer: (A) Article 51A | Source: MPCJ 2016
Q39. The original Constitution contained how many Fundamental Duties?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 9
(D) 12
✓ Answer: (A) 10 | Source: Delhi APO 2018
Q40. The 11th Fundamental Duty was added by which constitutional amendment?
(A) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(C) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
(D) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
✓ Answer: (A) 86th Amendment Act, 2002 | Source: UP PCS (J) 2019
Q41. The duty ‘to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years’ was added by the:
(A) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(C) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005
(D) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
✓ Answer: (A) 86th Amendment Act, 2002 | Source: Bihar APO 2019
Q42. Which Fundamental Duty requires citizens to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom?
(A) Article 51A(b)
(B) Article 51A(a)
(C) Article 51A(c)
(D) Article 51A(d)
✓ Answer: (A) Article 51A(b) | Source: CG PCS (J) 2017
Q43. Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the Constitution of which country?
(A) USSR (Soviet Union)
(B) United States of America
(C) Japan
(D) France
✓ Answer: (A) USSR (Soviet Union) | Source: Jharkhand PCS (J) 2018
Q44. Are Fundamental Duties enforceable by a writ in a court of law?
(A) No, they are non-justiciable
(B) Yes, they are directly enforceable
(C) Yes, but only in the Supreme Court
(D) Only if Parliament passes a specific law
✓ Answer: (A) No, they are non-justiciable | Source: UPPCS (J) 2018
Q45. In Ranganatha Misra Commission Report, Fundamental Duties were described as:
(A) Moral obligations of citizens
(B) Legally enforceable obligations
(C) Aspirations of the Constitution
(D) Administrative guidelines for the State
✓ Answer: (A) Moral obligations of citizens | Source: Delhi Judiciary Prelims 2017 (Adapted)
Q46. The duty to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife is enshrined in:
(A) Article 51A(g)
(B) Article 51A(f)
(C) Article 51A(h)
(D) Article 48A
✓ Answer: (A) Article 51A(g) | Source: Rajasthan APO 2017
Q47. Which Fundamental Duty obliges every citizen to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform?
(A) Article 51A(h)
(B) Article 51A(g)
(C) Article 51A(i)
(D) Article 51A(j)
✓ Answer: (A) Article 51A(h) | Source: MP PCS (J) 2018
Q48. In Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan (1997), the Supreme Court referred to Fundamental Duties while laying down guidelines on sexual harassment. The relevant duty was:
(A) Article 51A(e) — to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women
(B) Article 51A(a) — to abide by the Constitution
(C) Article 51A(j) — to strive for excellence
(D) Article 51A(d) — to defend the country
✓ Answer: (A) Article 51A(e) — to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women | Source: Bihar APO 2020 (Adapted)
Q49. The duty to safeguard public property and abjure violence is contained in:
(A) Article 51A(i)
(B) Article 51A(j)
(C) Article 51A(h)
(D) Article 51A(g)
✓ Answer: (A) Article 51A(i) | Source: UP APO 2018
Q50. Fundamental Duties apply to:
(A) Citizens of India only
(B) All persons residing in India
(C) Both citizens and non-citizens
(D) Only public servants✓ Answer: (A) Citizens of India only | Source: CG PCS (J) 2018
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